[solved] Polity questions with answers – CDS Exam Last 15 years Solved Questions

CDS Exam Polity questions with answers (including explanations) of the Last 15 years | CDS OTA Exam – Polity questions with solution | Latest CDS Exam Polity questions with answers | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of Polity

polity questions

Contents of This Post

CDS Exam Solved Polity questions

Physics Questions with Explanation
Chemistry Questions with Explanation
Biology Questions with Explanation
History Questions with Explanation
Geography Questions with Explanation
Polity Questions with Explanation
Economics Questions with Explanation
General Knowledge Questions with Explanation
Miscellaneous Questions with Explanation

1. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?

(a) Demands for Grants Committee
(b) Committee on Public Accounts
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Committee on Estimates

Answer – (a) Demands for Grants Committee
Demands for Grants Committees are Departmentally Related Standing Committees. After the General Discussion on the Budget is over, the House is adjourned for a fixed period. During this period, the Demands for Grants of the Ministries/ Departments are Considered by the Committees. It is not a parliamentary committee.

2. Consider the following statements

1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject or amend this bill. It can only recommend amendments.

3. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
(b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor takes over
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India

Answer – (b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
According to Article 67, a Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People.

4. Who was the President of India at the time of the proclamation of emergency in the year 1976?

(a) V. V. Giri
(b) Giani Zail Singh
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer – (c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad
In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 21-month period in 1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi unilaterally had a state of emergency declared across the country. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President at that time.

5. The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the following?

(a) Corruption in India
(b) Center-state relations
(c) local governance
(d) Inter-river dispute

Answer – (b) Center-state relations
Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central government.

6. Assertion (A): The number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer – (d) A is false, but R is true
A is false because the constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. According to article 315, the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the constitution provide for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state.

7. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India?

(a) Devi Lal
(b) GL Nanda
(c) LK Advani
(d) YB Chavan

Answer – (b) GL Nanda
Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India for two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966.

8. Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998?

(a) Administrative Reforms
(b) Banking Reforms
(c) Constitutional Reforms
(d) Electoral Reforms

Answer – (b) Banking Reforms
Two expert committees were established under former RBI Governor M Narasimhan in 1991 and 1998 to look into all aspects of the financial system in India. The report of this committee had comprehensive recommendations for financial sector reforms including the banking sector and capital markets.

9. Consider the following statements

1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b) Only 2
The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority to the Government to incur expenditure from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.

10. Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission for a State in India?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Governor of the State
(c) The Union Finance Minister
(d) The Union Cabinet

Answer – (b) The Governor of the State
According to Article 243(I), the governor of the state shall set up the Finance Commission within the period of one year. State Finance Commissions receive grants from the Finance Commission that is set up by the central government.

11. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India?

1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the Parliament.
3. He has the right to an audience in all courts in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

Answer – (d) All of these
Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(a) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

12. Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?

(a) A Member of either House of Parliament
(b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(c) A social worker actively involved in the promotion of human rights
(d) None of these

Answer – (b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
The Human Rights Commission consists of a chairman and other four members. The chairman should be retired chief justice of India.

13. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection?

(a) 8th Schedule
(b) 7th Schedule
(c) 9th Schedule
(d) 10th Schedule

Answer – (d) 10th Schedule
The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.

14. Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
(d) The Lok Sabha alone

Answer – (b) The Parliament of India
According to article 82 of the Indian Constitution, the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial constituencies.

15. Consider the following statements

1. The maximum number of Judges of the Supreme Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of India.
2. The maximum number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (a) Only 1
Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that “There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges”. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges).
Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The constitution without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.

16. Consider the following statements

1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b) Only 2
Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting as President or discharging the functions of president, the Vice President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament.

17. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the states?

(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Eighth

Answer – (c) Seventh
7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists:
Union List (97 Subjects)
States List (66 subjects)
Concurrent List(52 subjects)

18. What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with?

(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule
(b) Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states in the Seventh Schedule
(c) Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favor of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh

Answer – (c) Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill relating to the provision of reservation for socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the SCs and STS related to admission in educational institutions.

19. Consider the following statements

1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head.
2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 2

Answer – (d) Only 2
The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President. He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office (Article 61 According to article 52, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President.

20. Consider the following statements

1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programs of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs relating to the Parliament of India and works as a link between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It constitutes consultative committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during and between sessions.

21. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer – (b) II
Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part Il (Article 5-11) of the constitution.

22. Match the following
List l
(Schedule in the Constitution of India)

A. Tenth Schedule
B. Eighth Schedule
C. First Schedule
D. Ninth Schedule
List ll
(Subject)

1. Languages
2. Provisions as to disqualification on the grounds of defection
3. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
4. The States

(a) A 4, B 3, C 2, D 1
(b) A 2, B 1, C 4, D 3
(c) A 4, B 1, C 2, D 3
(d) A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1

Answer – (b) A 2, B 1, C 4, D 3
Schedule X was added by the 52nd amendment in 1985. It contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of defection.
Schedule Vlll contains a List of 22 languages of India recognized by the Constitution.
Schedule I deals with the List of States & Union Territories.
Schedule IX Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, and industries. Added by the 1st amendment in 1951. Laws under ScheduIe IX are beyond the purview of judicial review even though they violate fundamental rights enshrined under part lll of the Constitution.

23. The financial distribution between the Union and the State takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following?

(a) The National Development Council
(b) The Inter-State Council
(c) The Planning Commission
(d) The Finance Commission

Answer – (d) The Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

24. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Dr. B R Ambedkar
(d) T Krishnamachari

Answer – (c) Dr. B R Ambedkar
Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime Minister of India on 15 August 1947 and chose 15 other members for his cabinet in which B. R. Ambedkar was the first law minister of India.

25. Who is the Chairman of the second Administrative Reforms Commission?

(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) Dr. Karan Singh
(c) M Veerappa Moily
(d) Ahmed Patel

Answer – (d) Ahmed Patel
The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission was initially set up under the Chairmanship of Mr. Veerappa Moily, who resigned with effect from 1st April 2009. He was succeeded by V. Ramachandran. The Commission was to prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India.

26. Assertion (A): An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court.
Reason (R): Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer – (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. This includes the power to extend time in appropriate cases. The award passed by the Lok Adalat is the decision of the court itself, though, arrived at by the simpler method of conciliation instead of the process of arguments in court.

27. Sarkaria Commission was established to study ___

(a) President and Governoers’ relations
(b) Center-state relations
(c) State and Panchayat body relations
(d) President and Prime Minister’ relations

Answer – (b) Center-state relations
Sarkaria Commission was set up by the central government of India in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.

28. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality, and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right.
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

Answer – (d) All of the above
Article 26 of the Indian Constitution states the freedom to manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality, and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right-
(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
(b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
(d) to administer such property in accordance with law

29. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on Public Undertakings consists of 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the Rajya Sabha. The committee on Estimates consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members.

30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which one of the following Panchayati Raj structures?

(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Panchayat Samiti at the block level only
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level only
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Zilla Parishad Parishad at the district level only

Answer – (c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952). It recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system-Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level.

Leave a Comment